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Post #175 1.52K
The ESV attacks Jesus by sadly making him unbiblically look like a impure sinner & unbiblically making him need to be purified in Luke 😰

Luke 2:22 KJB
And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord;βœ…πŸ’―πŸ“–

Luke 2:22 ESV
[22] And when the time came for their purification according to the Law of Moses, they brought him up to Jerusalem to present him to the Lord❌😰

"Their" in "their purification" in Luke 2:22 KJB is Joseph, Jesus, and Mary, because Luke 2 ESV says:
Luke 2:16 , 21 ESV
[16] And they went with haste and found Mary and Joseph, and the baby lying in a manger.
[21] And at the end of eight days, when he was circumcised, he was called Jesus, the name given by the angel before he was conceived in the womb.❌😰

Leviticus 12:2 , 4 ESV
[2] β€œSpeak to the people of Israel, saying, If a woman conceives and bears a male child, then she shall be unclean seven days. As at the time of her menstruation, she shall be unclean.
[4] Then she shall continue for thirty-three days in the blood of her purifying. She shall not touch anything holy, nor come into the sanctuary, until the days of her purifying are completed. ❌😰

Thus, the ESV contradicts itself by saying "their purification" [of Joseph, Mary and Jesus (Luke 2:16, 22) versus "she [only the woman needing to be purified] shall be unclean" and "her purifying" in Leviticus  12:2 , 4  ESV .
The ESV is not consisent on and confuses and lies to the reader on who was purified. God is not the author of confusion, but Satan is the father of lies and the deciever of the world (John 8:44, Revelation 12:9)
Thankfully, the KJB is consisent and correct because it says Mary (Luke 2:16, 22 KJB), not Jesus (Luke 2:16, 22 ESV), was purified.

Leviticus 12:2, 4 KJB
[2] Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a woman have conceived seed, and born a man child: then she shall be unclean seven days; according to the days of the separation for her infirmity shall she be unclean.
[4] And she shall then continue in the blood of her purifying three and thirty days; she shall touch no hallowed thing, nor come into the sanctuary, until the days of her purifying be fulfilled. βœ…πŸ’―πŸ“–

Luke 2:22 KJB
[22] And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord; βœ…πŸ’―πŸ“–

The point on KJB vs ESV on Luke 2:22:
KJB: "her purification" βœ…πŸ’―πŸ“– (only Mary had to be purified - Leviticus 2:22 KJB)
ESV: "their purification" ❌😰 [including Jesus, thus unbiblically implying that Jesus was somehow not pure.)
Only Mary, not Jesus, had to be purified (Luke 2:22 KJB) to fulfill the law of purification for a woman who conceieved seed/a child (Leviticus   12:2, 4  KJB).


The KJB is right because Jesus is always pure:
1 John 3:2 - 3 KJB
[2] Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is. [3] And every man that hath this hope in him purifieth himself, even as he is pure.
[8] He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.

Jesus is the "he shall appear" and "he is pure" of 1 John 3:23 because Revelation 19 says:
Revelation 19:11 -13 KJB
[11] And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war.
[13] And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.

As per the KJB, Jesus is pure and never had to be purified, because Jesus is God in the flesh (1 Timothy 3:16; John 1:1-2, 1:14, 1:17) and never sinned (1 Peter 2:2).

Discard the ESV, and get the KJB.

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